Thursday, March 11, 2010

If the primal or paleodiet were adopted

all over the world, and land now used for the production of grains, rice, corn, and starches were switched to the production of vegetables and meat, would there be enough vegetables and arable land to feed the world? Or will grains, rice, corn, and starches always be needed, because of the amount of energy they contain relative to the amount of land required to grow them?

Can we say that man's choice of grains et al. when he became a farmer was not due to intelligence but more to an uncontrolled appetite for sugars (and fallen man's weakness)? The first farmers may have been ignorant of the negative consequences of a carb-heavy diet, but can we have the same excuse?

1 comment:

Don Wiss said...

What complicates this question is there is a lot of land that can't be farmed, but can be used for livestock grasing.

And we have to forget about using all this land and corn to make ethenol. It's just another money maker for agribusiness. Instead we have to put down all these people that don't want windmills in their view. And tax gasoline to get people to drive smaller vehicles.