Being Byzantine (Catholic) by Chase Padusniak
But if it is an interepiscopal squabble over the nature of primacy, were the Orthodox justified in protesting Roman claims about the authority of the bishop of pope if they went beyond Tradition, even to the point of breaking communion? While the Melkites have protested against certain ultramontanist interpretations of Vatican I, has anything changed in Roman teaching in the subsequent century and a half, despite the presence of the "Uniates"?
Related:
1054: History, Myth, and the Making of a Schism by Nathan Smolin
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